Question

Gandhi ji strongly believed that every ***** in India should be given the right to vote. However, a few people don't share his views. They feel that illiterate people, who are mainly poor, should not be given the right to vote. What do you think? Do you think this would be a form of discrimination? Give five points to support your view and share these with the class.

Answer 1

In India, before Independence, only a small **** was allowed to vote.The poor, *****,the property-less and the uneducated were not allowed to vote. We think that the people must be given the right to vote.

The given statement shows it a case of discrimination because of the following:

(i) All citizens are equal by law.

(ii) According to constitution, there is no difference between a man and woman, a poor and a rich.

(iii) The laws are not made for men only. (iv) All citizens must be granted right to vote.