If f(x) satisfies the conditions of Rolle’* theorem in [1, 2] and f(x) is continuous in [1, 2] , then ∫f'(x)dx for x ∈ [1, 2] is equal to
(A) 3
(B) 0
(C) 1
(D) 2
Answer is (B) 0
We have
because f(x) satisfies the conditions of Rolle’* theorem. Therefore, f(2) = f(1)]).